Dominate the Biology board paper by mastering the Molecular basis of inheritance MCQ. This curated mock test covers the 38 most critical questions frequently asked in the NCERT Class 12 Biology Exam. These questions are handpicked to build conceptual clarity and speed for your upcoming examination.

Why This Test -Molecular basis of inheritance MCQ- Matters?
Exam Weightage: For the NCERT Class 12 Biology Exam, this unit carries significant weightage (approx. 18-20 marks combined with Genetics), making it crucial for a high aggregate score. Questions from this chapter often appear as 5-mark case studies or direct competency-based MCQs.
Difficulty: Moderate to Hard (Concept Intensive).
Practice Questions (Live Mock Test) – Molecular basis of inheritance MCQ
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Molecular basis of inheritance MCQ – 38 Most Expected Questions (34 MCQs Test)
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In a DNA molecule, the phosphate group is linked to the sugar moiety of the same nucleoside by a specific bond. What is this bond called?
Explanation:
Correct: C
The phosphate is linked to the 5-prime OH of the nucleoside sugar by a phosphoester bond. This linkage is the primary connection within a single nucleotide, whereas the Polynucleotide Chain is formed via phosphodiester bonds.
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Scenario: A scientist calculates the length of DNA in a typical mammalian cell.
Given: Total base pairs equals 6.6 billion. Distance between two consecutive base pairs equals 0.34 nanometers.
What is the approximate length of this DNA double helix?
Given: Total base pairs equals 6.6 billion. Distance between two consecutive base pairs equals 0.34 nanometers.
What is the approximate length of this DNA double helix?
Explanation:
Correct: B
Length equals Total Base Pairs multiplied by Distance (0.34 nm). Calculating (6.6 x 10^9) x (0.34 x 10^-9 m) yields approximately 2.24 meters, illustrating the massive packaging challenge in the nucleus.
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Scenario: Analysis of a sea urchin double-stranded DNA sample reveals that 17 percent of the bases are Cytosine.
Based on Chargaff’s rules, what is the percentage of Adenine in this sample?
Based on Chargaff’s rules, what is the percentage of Adenine in this sample?
Explanation:
Correct: B
According to Chargaff’s Rule, Cytosine equals Guanine (17%), so C+G = 34%. Due to Complementary Base Pairs, the remaining 66% is A+T; thus, Adenine equals 33%.
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Consider the following statements regarding Chromatin:
Assertion (A): Heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive.
Reason (R): It is densely packed and stains dark.
Assertion (A): Heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive.
Reason (R): It is densely packed and stains dark.
Explanation:
Correct: A
Heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive because it is densely packed, making it inaccessible to transcription enzymes. This distinction is a frequent topic in every Molecular basis of inheritance MCQ.
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Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the experimental proof for semiconservative replication?
Explanation:
Correct: C
The experiment was conducted by Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl (1958), not Watson and Crick. This pivotal experiment confirmed Semiconservative DNA Replication as the mechanism of inheritance.
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Taylor conducted experiments to prove the semiconservative mode of chromosome replication. Which specific organism did he use for this study?
Explanation:
Correct: B
Taylor used radioactive thymidine to detect the distribution of newly synthesized DNA in the chromosomes of Vicia faba (Faba beans), extending the semi-conservative model to eukaryotes.
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Which of the following experiments provided the “unequivocal” or final proof that DNA is the genetic material?
Explanation:
Correct: C
While earlier experiments hinted at it, the scientific community accepted DNA as the Hereditary Material only after the bacteriophage transduction experiments by Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952).
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Consider the following statements regarding DNA Replication:
Assertion (A): The lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously.
Reason (R): DNA polymerase can only polymerize nucleotides in the 5-prime to 3-prime direction.
Assertion (A): The lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously.
Reason (R): DNA polymerase can only polymerize nucleotides in the 5-prime to 3-prime direction.
Explanation:
Correct: A
DNA Polymerase has strict polarity (5′ to 3′). This limitation forces the synthesis of the complementary strand (3′ to 5′ template) to occur in short, discontinuous Okazaki fragments.
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Name the specific enzyme responsible for breaking the hydrogen bonds and opening the DNA helix during replication.
Explanation:
Correct: B
DNA Helicase is the “unzipping” enzyme. It utilizes ATP hydrolysis to break hydrogen bonds between base pairs, creating the replication fork required for synthesis.
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Which of the following statements regarding DNA replication is INCORRECT?
Explanation:
Correct: C
DNA replication invariably occurs in the 5′ to 3′ direction. Statement C is incorrect because polymerases cannot synthesize DNA in the 3′ to 5′ direction.
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In Eukaryotes, RNA Polymerase 1 is responsible for transcribing which of the following?
Explanation:
Correct: C
Eukaryotic transcription is compartmentalized; RNA Polymerase 1 strictly transcribes the large ribosomal RNAs (28S, 18S, and 5.8S), essential for ribosome assembly.
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Which of the following codons serves a dual function as the Starter Codon and also codes for Methionine?
Explanation:
Correct: C
AUG is the universal start codon that signals the beginning of translation and simultaneously codes for the amino acid Methionine in eukaryotes and formyl-methionine in prokaryotes.
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Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Bacteria (Prokaryotes) do not require spliceosomes.
Reason (R): Bacterial genes are not “split genes”; they lack introns.
Assertion (A): Bacteria (Prokaryotes) do not require spliceosomes.
Reason (R): Bacterial genes are not “split genes”; they lack introns.
Explanation:
Correct: A
Bacterial genomes are streamlined and lack non-coding introns (Reason). Therefore, they do not possess or require spliceosomes (Assertion) for transcript processing.
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The segment of DNA that is equivalent to a “structural gene” is technically referred to as a:
Explanation:
Correct: B
A cistron is defined as a segment of DNA that codes for a specific polypeptide. Monocistronic genes are common in eukaryotes, while polycistronic genes occur in prokaryotes.
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In E. coli, the RNA polymerase holoenzyme requires a transient factor for the Initiation of transcription. What is this factor?
Explanation:
Correct: B
The Sigma factor confers specificity to the RNA polymerase, enabling it to recognize promoter sequences and initiate transcription. The Rho factor is involved in termination.
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Which of the following features is NOT applicable to RNA?
Explanation:
Correct: B
Chargaff’s Rule implies a 1:1 ratio seen in double-stranded DNA. RNA is typically single-stranded, so the ratio of purines to pyrimidines varies and does not follow this rule.
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In Eukaryotic transcription, the primary transcript (hnRNA) contains both exons and introns. The process of removing introns and joining exons in a defined order is technically called:
Explanation:
Correct: D
Splicing is the post-transcriptional modification in the nucleus where introns are excised and exons are ligated, transforming hnRNA into functional mRNA.
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Identify the correct chronological first step in the process of Translation:
Explanation:
Correct: C
Before translation begins, amino acids must be activated (using ATP) and linked to their cognate tRNAs. This “charging” or aminoacylation is the energetic prerequisite.
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Scenario: In an E. coli culture, a nonsense mutation occurs specifically in the lac Y gene of the Lac Operon.
If Lactose is added to the medium, which enzymes will be produced?
If Lactose is added to the medium, which enzymes will be produced?
Explanation:
Correct: B
The operon gene order is Z-Y-A. A mutation in ‘Y’ stops translation there. Only the ‘Z’ gene (Beta-galactosidase), located upstream of the mutation, is successfully translated.
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In Gel Electrophoresis, DNA fragments are separated based on their movement through an agarose matrix. Which of the following principles dictates this movement?
Explanation:
Correct: C
DNA is negatively charged. Under an electric field, it moves toward the anode. The agarose matrix acts as a molecular sieve, allowing smaller fragments to travel faster and farther.
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A specific structure is formed when multiple ribosomes associate with a single mRNA strand to translate it simultaneously. What is this structure called?
Explanation:
Correct: A
A polysome (polyribosome) consists of multiple ribosomes attached to a single mRNA, enabling the cell to rapidly synthesize multiple copies of the same protein.
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Match the Lac Operon gene with its correct product:
(a) i-gene matches (iii) Repressor
(b) z-gene matches (i) Beta-galactosidase
(c) a-gene matches (iv) Transacetylase
(d) y-gene matches (ii) Permease
Which option matches the above pairs?
(a) i-gene matches (iii) Repressor
(b) z-gene matches (i) Beta-galactosidase
(c) a-gene matches (iv) Transacetylase
(d) y-gene matches (ii) Permease
Which option matches the above pairs?
Explanation:
Correct: A
The ‘i’ gene codes for the inhibitor (repressor), ‘z’ for beta-galactosidase (digestion), ‘y’ for permease (entry), and ‘a’ for transacetylase.
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Which of the following is NOT a component of a standard prokaryotic Operon?
Explanation:
Correct: C
Enhancers are distal regulatory elements found in Eukaryotes. Prokaryotic operons rely on proximal regulation via Promoters, Operators, and associated regulatory genes.
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In the Lac Operon system, the hydrolysis of disaccharide lactose into monomeric galactose and glucose is catalyzed by the product of which gene?
Explanation:
Correct: D
The ‘z’ gene encodes Beta-galactosidase. This enzyme is responsible for breaking the glycosidic bond in lactose, producing glucose and galactose.
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In the regulation of the Lac Operon, which specific molecule acts as the “Inducer” by binding to the repressor and inactivating it?
Explanation:
Correct: B
Lactose (or its isomer Allolactose) binds to the repressor protein, causing a conformational change that prevents it from binding to the operator, thereby inducing transcription.
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The Human Genome Project used a specific approach called “Expressed Sequence Tags” (ESTs). What does this approach strictly focus on?
Explanation:
Correct: B
EST methodology prioritizes coding regions. It focuses exclusively on identifying and sequencing genes that are actively transcribed into RNA (expressed genes).
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Which of the following techniques is NOT a prerequisite step or tool for DNA Fingerprinting?
Explanation:
Correct: D
Zinc Finger Analysis involves protein motifs used in gene editing. DNA fingerprinting relies on restriction digestion, electrophoresis, blotting, and hybridization.
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Why is Satellite DNA considered the critical tool for DNA fingerprinting?
Explanation:
Correct: C
Satellite DNA exhibits high polymorphism (variation) in the number of repeats between individuals. This heritable uniqueness forms the basis of DNA profiling.
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Identify the correct order of organization of genetic material from the largest unit to the smallest unit:
Explanation:
Correct: A
The hierarchy starts with the Genome (total DNA), followed by Chromosomes (DNA packages), Genes (functional units), and finally Nucleotides (chemical monomers).
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The classic DNA fingerprinting technique developed by Alec Jeffreys uses a specific type of satellite DNA probe called:
Explanation:
Correct: A
Alec Jeffreys utilized VNTRs (minisatellites) as probes. These sequences show high variability in repeat numbers, making them ideal for individual identification.
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What is the genetic material found in the Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)?
Explanation:
Correct: B
TMV is a classic example of an RNA virus. It contains a single strand of RNA encapsulated by a protein coat (capsid).
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Thomas Hunt Morgan used a specific experimental organism to prove the chromosomal theory of inheritance. Which organism was it?
Explanation:
Correct: B
Morgan selected Drosophila melanogaster (fruit fly) due to its short life cycle, ease of culture, and distinct morphological variations, confirming chromosomal inheritance.
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In the process of DNA isolation, the addition of Chilled Ethanol serves which specific function?
Explanation:
Correct: C
DNA is hydrophilic and dissolves in water but is insoluble in alcohol. Adding chilled ethanol precipitates DNA, allowing it to be spooled out as visible threads.
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Consider the following statements regarding DNA Fingerprinting:
Assertion (A): DNA fingerprinting can resolve paternity disputes.
Reason (R): Polymorphisms in Satellite DNA are inheritable from parents to children.
Assertion (A): DNA fingerprinting can resolve paternity disputes.
Reason (R): Polymorphisms in Satellite DNA are inheritable from parents to children.
Explanation:
Correct: A
A child inherits one set of chromosomes from each parent. Therefore, the unique Satellite DNA bands (polymorphisms) in a child must match either parent, confirming paternity—a key application of Molecular basis of inheritance MCQ.
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Completed!
Score: 0/34
Quick Revision: Key Facts
Packaging Ratio: The 2.2-meter DNA fits into a nucleus using Histone Octamers (H2A, H2B, H3, H4) and H1 linker.
Chargaff’s Rule: In dsDNA, Purines (A+G) always equal Pyrimidines (T+C).
Replication Fork: DNA Polymerase polymerizes only in 5′->3′; thus, the lagging strand is discontinuous (Okazaki fragments).
Central Dogma: DNA -> (Transcription) -> mRNA -> (Translation) -> Protein. Exception: Reverse Transcription in Retroviruses.
Frequently Asked Questions
Why is Molecular basis of inheritance MCQ critical for NCERT Class 12 Biology Exam?
It is a high-yield topic. Analyzing previous year papers of NCERT Class 12 Biology Exam shows a consistent trend of questions from this area.
Is this content updated?
Yes, these questions reflect the latest pattern and recent judicial interpretations relevant for the exam.